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Define "Late Antiquity"

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  • September 25, 2011 at 3:46 pm #2939 Reply
    Phidippides
    Keymaster

    I was thinking about what a more concrete definition of “Late Antiquity” might mean.  Any thoughts?For a beginning point, would it mean after the Five Good Emperors (c. 180 A.D.) or something more like with the Edict of Milan (313 A.D.)?  Or some other date?  I probably would lean toward 313, but this is a presumption.As for its end, I am guessing the traditional end date of the Roman Empire, 476 A.D.  But could it be some other date?  Seems awfully short if it's just from 313-476.

    September 27, 2011 at 9:19 am #25444 Reply
    scout1067
    Participant

    I would date late antiquity from the 69 A.D. Year of the Four Emperors to 476 A.D.  Just my arbitrary scheme though.  The end of the Julian Dynasty seems a fitting way to break with the past to me.

    September 27, 2011 at 4:02 pm #25445 Reply
    Omer
    Participant

    I'd say after Theodosius reign,  the last emperor to rule over both the eastern and the western halves of the Roman Empire (AD 379-395) and who declared Christianity as the only legitimate Imperial religion, ending the state support for the traditional Roman religion (AD 380).

    September 29, 2011 at 5:24 pm #25446 Reply
    scout1067
    Participant

    I'd say after Theodosius reign,  the last emperor to rule over both the eastern and the western halves of the Roman Empire (AD 379-395) and who declared Christianity as the only legitimate Imperial religion, ending the state support for the traditional Roman religion (AD 380).

    Wouldn't that mark the break between late antiquity and the early middle ages?

    September 29, 2011 at 5:42 pm #25447 Reply
    Phidippides
    Keymaster

    Yeah, I think he must have meant “ending with”, not “after”.

    September 30, 2011 at 2:14 pm #25448 Reply
    Omer
    Participant

    I might be wrong but the Early Middle Ages didn't begin with the fall of Rome ?

    September 30, 2011 at 6:42 pm #25449 Reply
    Phidippides
    Keymaster

    Yes, but I was wonder what the dates of “late antiquity” would be.  I think that it is generally used to describe the period of Roman imperial decline and rise of Christianity.

    October 4, 2011 at 9:01 am #25450 Reply
    scout1067
    Participant

    I might be wrong but the Early Middle Ages didn't begin with the fall of Rome ?

    The when did the early middle ages begin?  Further, is there then a break between late antiquity and the early middle ages and if so, what would you name that interregnum?  I tend to think that there are no specific breaks in historical periods, instead there is a blending period from one era to the next.  Nobody woke up one day and thought they were no longer living in antiquity, the renaissance, or the enlightenment.  Roman institutions long survived the Roman empire.  Indeed, you could claim that some survive still, at least in spirit.  Look at he US congress, a Senate and Popular Assembly; if that is not an institution specifically modeled on Roman forms what is?

    October 5, 2011 at 2:00 am #25451 Reply
    Phidippides
    Keymaster

    The when did the early middle ages begin?  Further, is there then a break between late antiquity and the early middle ages and if so, what would you name that interregnum?  I tend to think that there are no specific breaks in historical periods, instead there is a blending period from one era to the next.  Nobody woke up one day and thought they were no longer living in antiquity, the renaissance, or the enlightenment.  Roman institutions long survived the Roman empire.  Indeed, you could claim that some survive still, at least in spirit.  Look at he US congress, a Senate and Popular Assembly; if that is not an institution specifically modeled on Roman forms what is?

    I agree with you about the “blending” of periods, but I also think that we can point to specific events in history which usher in “breaks” in political history.  For example, when U.S. history of the late-20th/early 21st is written, 9/11 will probably be used as the date marking a break with the past.  Likewise, I think that the issuance of the Edict of Milan signaled a fundamental shift in history, even if this shift was realized bit by bit. 

    October 6, 2011 at 12:55 pm #25452 Reply
    scout1067
    Participant

    There is some truth to that and many of the seminal events are used more as bookends than bright shining lines.  However, we should be careful that we don't let our own conventions blind us to the reality that history is a continuum and not a series of eras or epochs.

    October 6, 2011 at 1:15 pm #25453 Reply
    Phidippides
    Keymaster

    I think that is most readily visible in something like the fall of Rome, which we have talked about elsewhere.  We agree that 476 A.D. is a merely a technical date, a tidy “end” for students to use. I don't think it is a “pointless” thing to mention simply because it underscores the collapse of Roman governance, but it did not cause any real change in the culture of the people living at the time.  In essence, it is a date which is largely used for convenience when studying the history of Western Civilization.

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