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I want to get into a basic discussion of the evolution of history from prehistory. What were some of the reasons why this came about?We know that during the Paleolithic period, man was nomadic (at least part of the year) but spent some time in or around caves. I am not entirely certain about the dates of this period, but it seems to have ended sometime around 10,000 B.C. or 8,500 B.C., at which time we enter the Neolithic age. We eventually see writing develop in Sumer sometime around 3000 B.C. An obvious reason for the end of prehistoric era seems to be the end of the last Ice Age around 8000 B.C. (in Europe), which allowed for agricultural development, the rise of cities, and the need for writing. Is this the only or primary reason historians point to, or are there other reasons? If the end of the Ice Age was the reason why humans were able to develop and start to write, how do you explain the lack of writing in places where the Ice Age did not seem to extend, such as Africa?
I think the demarcation of Prehistory to History is fluid as the archeological record reveals newer information. Since things are in a state of flux, it is more or less a guideline to help simplify and package History into recognizable epochs for concentration. Writing is obviously the signpost of man's promotion into civilization. I would say it is the single most important factor in determining where Prehistory ends. However, it doesn't have to be the only thing. For historians, the written record is where we ultimately get our knowledge, but for archaeologists, tool making might be their greatest signpost, or agriculture/animal husbandry etc…. Remember that oral traditions are a record of sorts too, but historians cannot verify authenticity, authorship, and accuracy with these kinds of accounts. Obviously art predates writing, and is yet another form of creative expression that might be used as a marker, but again, authenticity, authorship, and accuracy are much more difficult to pin down. On a side note, what constitutes the “modern era?” Where do you draw the cutoff in technological terms? What was the era before the “modern era?” It's the same situation isn't it?
Just my small view; pre-history to history is likely the watershed of the discovery / invention of agriculture. Modern era watershed, the Renaissance-Reformation.
IMO agriculture helped to foster the historical period, but does not constitute it. Agriculture was made possible for reasons unknown, but at least in Europe it could only have happened once the ice age started to dissipate. If this happened sometime around the Mesolithic Period, 9000-8000 B.C., there were still another 4500-5000 years or so before writing developed. So I would still confine the period of history to the period of writing.As for the catalyst for writing, I think it arose out the need to control/administer to larger populations. Larger villages and towns, made possible after man left his nomadic lifestyle behind, required certain levels of communication to be effective. Art is one means of communication, but it is indirect and imprecise in certain regards. Writing might be thought of as another form of “art” which is far more precise. This is done by eliminating the aesthetics from it.
